Sorry if I ask stupid questions, my head is not clear past few days. As always thank you all so much for the time you spent to answer.
Let's first try to see if there is an "impossible" address, that is - no public key maps to that address.
1. When randomly mapping a n-bit number x to n-bit number y, the probability of having k distinct x-es mapping to y is e-1/k!
2. Starting with a private key (256 bit) we map it to public key, then sha256, and finally ripemd160. This is 256 bit to 160 bit random mapping.
3. Fixing the 96 MSB of the private key we get 160 bit to 160 bit mapping. The probability of not reaching y is e-1.
4. We repeat this for every possible 96 MSB. The probability of not reaching y every time is (e-1)296 = e-296 < 2-114302077158074026402637675936.
Well, we could safely say there's no such address.
Let's try to see if there is an address to which points only single public key.
The probability of having zero mappings is the same as having one mapping:
e-1(e-1)296-1 = e-296
We get the same number as above.
There is no address with a single public key.
We expect the number of public keys pointing to that address to be quite close to 296.
---
Now let the private key lays in certain 160-bit interval (or is in a random set of 2160 distinct private keys).
The probability of not reaching an address y is e-1 ≈ 36.8%
The probability of reaching an address only once is the same.
The probability of collision is 1-e-1-e-1 ≈ 26.4%
---
Hopefully this brings some clarity.
For info on the math leading to these results one could look at the article "Random Mapping Statistics", or the book "Analytic Combinatorics".