Why would the government implicate itself with criminal charges?
It wouldn't. It would implicate whoever performed the act and anyone who gave the orders if the orders were given in a way that suggested murder should be considered an option.
You are assuming the people who gave the orders and the ones who have the influence aren't the same party.
I think you addressed this already... it's been 60 years.
Last time I checked the CIA doesn't have a part of its budget set aside to pay for school books. If you have been the victim of high level criminal activity involving a substance virtually unknown to people at the time (LSD) , it usually helps if you first of all know what you were drugged with (a couple decades there). Second any time you are suing the federal government or its subsidiaries, you might not want the very same people who assaulted you to be able to influence the very mechanism with which you are seeking justice.
And you still keep ignoring it... lol