A lot of delusion, confusion, and outright ignorance fill up the topics here in respect to money appreciation and its effects on the economy. The ignorant don't even understand their ignorance, persisting in their obstinacy and arrogance. So I decided to make a new topic to send the next generations of these morons right here (you are welcome too)
And here we go
If the currency is appreciating, raw materials actually end up more expensive to you, since your profits are diminished when you sell finished goods for less price (due to currency appreciation)...
this is wrong, because when the currency is appreciating the cost of raw materials is going down.
there arent less profits either.
in absolute numbers the final cost is less but through appreciation your buying power is the same.
First of all, the inevitable outcome of money appreciation is an
increase in the buying power, by definition. It means that savers can buy more goods with the same amount of money than before the appreciation started. This is rather straightforward and shouldn't be a matter of dispute. But at whose expense has this consumers paradise been made possible? Who does really pay for it?
These poor beggars are the producers of all those goods, whose profits are being mercilessly socialized through money appreciation. The key to understanding the mechanism of expropriating profits in this way lies in the non-obvious discrepancy between how money appreciation affects prices and profits. At first glance, it may look that profits are affected in absolutely the same way as the prices (as the dude from my quote above innocently assumes). If it were so, we would most certainly have the case where "there arent less profits either". The major problem is it is not. If we had a production cycle of a company equal to one year*, its profit margin at 10% (before money appreciation), and an annual rate of money appreciation at 5%, that would give us a whopping 50% decline in profits, since at the end of the production cycle the company would be able to sell its product only at 95% of its original price with a profit of only 5%. That is
two times less, with the rest being eaten and socialized by money appreciation
Thereby, the raw materials that the company bought at the beginning of the production cycle turn out to be more expensive for the company relative to the income it generates from selling its goods. In other words, it should have bought them 5% cheaper to balance out the drop in profits. If the company decides to keep up the profit margin at its original level, it would have to buy less raw materials in the next cycles (which effectively means the same), i.e. reduce production, and with each consecutive production cycle accompanied by money appreciation the profits will be diminishing in absolute terms up to a point where production stops completely and the business winds up...
To sum it up, there is no free lunch, and still more so for the ignorant (no regrets)
*Later update: before engaging in argument make sure that you know what a production cycle of a company (business) really means lest you should make a fool of yourself (as it happened below)