"16 Also it causes all, both small and great, both rich and poor, both free and slave, to be marked on the right hand or the forehead, 17 so that no one can buy or sell unless he has the mark, that is, the name of the beast or the number of its name."
That's the New King James Version, and it says "on". I'd be interested to see the original Greek words, and maybe attempt to decipher whether it truly should be in or on?
Regardless, it does say "the name of the beast or the number of its name" is what the mark will be made up of. So, how exactly could the mark be unique for each person if the Bible explicitly states that it will be the name/number of the beast?
Yeah, the Greek would be interesting.
Anyway, the scripture describes the mark in one way, but I don't think that scripture limits it in the respect of having any identifying component per individual. For example, any U.S. dollar bill you find has generic markings that we use to identify what it is, yet each bill also includes unique numbers that identify any one bill from another. Regaarding the mark of the beast, as a mark that solely designated allegiance or worship, how could that kind of mark make commerce enforecable in the way that people could not buy or sell without it? I don't think such a generic mark would prevent buying and selling of unmarked people. Unless, of course, it is meant in a legal sense. I guess there could be a severe penalty [death?] to merchants if they were caught of course. That would sway a merchant from selling to an unmarked person, just in case it was a random check by authorities. But that woudl require a lot of resources and it would not be popular with people. It would not stop merchants from selling to unmarked people he/she knew personally weren't a risk to buy from or sell to. i.e. It would just be a black market, unmarked peopel having to buy/sell food, yet still having use of the accepted form of cash. So, we can ask the question: "What must be, for what is, to be what it is?", And I can't say it "must be", but it seems the best [most doable] answer is that an identifying component would be associated with the mark.
I wonder if Isaac Newton [alive 1624 - 1727] wrote on this. He believed in scripture, and prophecy. And he wrote extensively on it. For example, in his writings, he used a different prophetic passage to argue that it must mean people would one day be able to travel at speeds of at least 50mph. In his day, and all days prior of course, the fasted mode of travel for man was on a horse. A horse can run a sustained pace of maybe 35mph (though I'm not sure how far that can be sustained). Anyway, Voltaire apparently ridiculed Newton about that possibility, and that his Chrisitan beliefs were affecting his reason. Of course, we know the rest of the story. Anyway, I'm not motivated to research it just yet, but it would be interesting to know if he did comment/write on it.
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