i do understand the conversation that took place earlier about "selling" essentially being equivalent to "shorting" but most professionals don't view it that way.
It's not even close. If you are caught on the wrong side of a naked short you are looking at huge losses.
On the other hand, if you missed the train on an upmove after you just sold your bitcoins you don't have any losses, you just don't have the profit you otherwise would have had.
Serious question, not trying to be a smartass:
If borrowing the shares is required to call it shorting, why does the term naked short mean? I thought a naked short was shorting without actually owning the asset to begin with, and therefore "regular" shorting would be shorting when you do start out owning the asset. Am I mistaken?
naked shorting is when you don't even have to borrow the share from a long to put on the short.
WTF, how is that supposed to work?
example:
i'm an account holder at Fidelity. suppose, in aggregate, they have 100 customers who hold 100,000 shares of Apple.
i am a short seller. for simplicity let's say i have enough money in my account to allow me to borrow and sell those 100,000 shares to buyers looking to go long. if Fidelity is an ethical firm, they won't allow me to do that with any more than the 100,000 shares held at the firm, even if i want to short 150,000 shares. if they aren't ethical, they might allow me to naked short the extra 50,000 shares.
in other words, sell what they don't have.