Jtimon,
JoelKatz and 99Percent made solid arguments, so I don't think I need to add much more. Just a bunch of minor things.
Not sure what 99Percent thinks now because I thought I agreed with him and you and Joel didn't.
I'm not sure he means what I think when he said:
In order for investments to be worthwhile in a deflationary economy, profits would have to be much higher and with a quicker turnaround.
Summarizing, my point was that...
1) Capital yields tend to equal the real interest rate.
2) The real interest gets greater with deflation (compared to nominal interest)
3) Nominal interest rate can't be under zero (at least with capital-money). So using the formula nominal interest = real interest + inflation premium, with nominal rate = 0 = real rate - deflation rate, real rate = deflation rate. Which is what cunnicula is saying.
Now, we have a capital A and we consider its profitability.
In the first case (without deflation) the investment is profitable if its capital yield is above the real interest rate, which is equal to the nominal interest rate.
Say current average capital yields and the real interest rate are at say 5%.
Borrowing money at 5% to make that 5% yield capital investment seems right.
Now with deflation, say at 10%, the nominal interest on the loan should be -5% (which we have already stated is impossible) for the same capital investment to be equally attractive.
Or in other words, in this deflationary context, the capital yield should be 10% to be as attractive as the 5% investment in the stable prices context.
According to cunnicula, this is impossible because of what I just said. But what's the mechanism that prevents that from happening?
Let's say we have a shrinking monetary base that would produce a 10% price deflation. How that 10% turns into a 5%?
What I think happens is that investments stop, driving capital yields and the real interest higher. That is, deflation creates an artificial scarcity on investments (we could say the same thing for the basic interest, but that, although related, is another discussion) that is product of the money-capital being temporally superior to real capitals because of deflation. Deflation, by slowing real capital investments, make their yields rise.
It's obviously more interesting to have a fountain when there's only two of them around than what it is when everybody have their own.
Do we agree that deflation can make it harder for capital to be profitable?
What am I missing here and in my
bakery example? What's wrong in my reasoning?