I'm surprised you're wanting to argue this, given that your full post is available above, for everyone to read.
Nevertheless, here's your full post, again (my bold):
The genetic modifications are making the participants 'Round-Up Ready' one might say (or argue in court...closed court for national security reasons.)
Someone is welcome to show where the courts reversed the interpretation that engineer genes are NOT patent-able in the case of GMO technology inserted into human beings. I doubt that they can. Beyond that, when it is adjudicated I doubt that the courts will reverse the previous rulings. In other words, everyone who's got foriegn genes designed in pharma labs WILL be ruled as at least partially the property of the patent holders. If one has been turned into a GMO against their will it becomes more complicated. Monsanto (now Bayer...formerly IG Farben of nazi fame) dropped the suite claiming ownership of a crop that had been genetically contaminated against the farmer's will/wishes because they didn't want to lose and have it become case law. That was a while ago, however, and you can take it to the bank that the lobbyists who write U.S. law have inserted a ton of Easter-eggs since that time.
To which 'I doubt that' are you referring? The first instance, where you doubt that anyone can show where the courts reversed their decision? Or the second instance, where you doubt that, when it is adjudicated, courts will reverse the previous rulings?
You are of course perfectly entitled to backtrack and to change your opinion, and to say that you didn't mean what you said... but please don't try to dress it up as someone willfully misinterpreting you.
Let me break it down for you:
- The courts say that organisms running on patented genes are in at least property of the patent holder of those genes.
-
Will the courts reverse this ruling when the organism happens to be a human being
? -
I doubt it. -
In other words, the courts WILL rule that it doesn't matter that the GMO is (or was) a human being. Patent laws applies as 'normal'.
The 'in other words' clause shows that I was explaining more clearly a prediction of mine.
This is pretty basic English. I don't know if English is a second language for you or what. If it is, that is extra reason to be careful about editing other people's writing and taking it out of context. Likewise if you are simply not very literate.
---
It's worth note that in some religions, and certain interpretations of some religions, there is nothing objectionable whatsoever about one tribe of people owning other human beings. God chose certain people to rule over other people. Only a certain tribe received 'the spark'. Historically these people have been slave traders, human traffickers, etc. Lately organ traffic has become more of a thing because there is good money in it (the medical/industrial complex and medical expenses being what they are.)
Some of you Christians might be having a bit of cognitive dissonance over the idea that patent holders might own trans-humans. Just note that to others the concept would be as natural as a tree. ...'and
thems that own the gold makes the rules' according to the 'golden rule.'