You say that most of the people had been robbed off of their wealth long before the bubble burst, but this alone would immediately cause the instantaneous collapse of the bubble (right after people had lost their wealth), since the bubble can only exist as long as new money is flowing in it, and in ever increasing amounts at that.
The bubble only collapse when people find out that their wealth on paper start to drop, and they rush to sell it. As long as that paper wealth is rising or keep flat, people will just hold into it or buy more, thus the sell pressure on market is not enough to trigger a downfall, however those who drove the bubble has already cashed out long before the crash, because they know in advance, when they stop injecting more credit into the market, the bubble will burst inevitably
How can they buy more if by that time they had long been stripped of their wealth (as you said earlier)? Also, if they had been robbed off of their wealth, wouldn't it be natural that they would try to cash out immediately, thus causing the bubble to pop? Your arguments lack a proper timing between events (namely, complete stripping of wealth and bubble collapse), thereby rendering you whole point dubious (that withdrawing of all fiat from an economy won't stall or crash it)...