Topic: New Bitcoin Valuation Using Experimental Economics (Read 2490 times)

Whats your valuation/guesstimation of the bitcoin over the next year and what do you base this valuation on? I ask because you give a brilliant argument and sound like you know what your talking about?

I would like to add to this point by myrkul, the "Ideal distribution of resources" much like anarcho-communism is an unachievable state because of the numerous shortcoming myrkul lays out.  But if such a state were to exist it would by definition no longer have any need for prices at all.  Prices exist as corrective signals which communicate shortages and gluts, the perfect distribution thus no longer needs prices and would become pure exchange.  Nor would such a state have any innovation, changes in taste or preference or any opportunity for profit, arbitrage or investment.  In other-words it would be a dead wax-replica of the real world.  The OP's fault lies in trying to project Platonic ideals onto the economy and prices in particular as he creates the notion of an almost other-worldly perfect price of which our real prices are but pale shadows of on the back wall of a stock exchange.  Platonic ideals are deservedly one of the most repudiated concepts in the history of philosophy and projecting them onto prices is a gross absurdity.

How accurate did you find the evaluation?

lol yeah definitely lot of brains here, but sometimes i need it simple   

I would think some other important factors contributing to btc intrinsic value up (or down) are its use (or non-use) as a medium of exchange instead of a hoarding device, and its perceived or predicted legality (or illegality). These probably fall under what you were assigning 50% "use".

I realize trying to quantify demand due to perceived legality would almost entail quantifying conspiracy theory, but statistically quantifying further the intrinsic value due to its use as a medium of exchange might be easier or more empirical.

Could it be something like projecting the growth (or shrinkage) of the total market volume, scope, and variety of goods and services exchanged in btc and applying that as some kind of coefficient or factor?

I'm getting out of my league is why I'm asking. I'm trying to handicap this, you know, like the horse races.
 

Always good to see the knowledge here gotta love that bling value haha

I'd say this hair has been pretty much split.

I'm going to reread the article now and substitute the words "intrinsic value" with the words "bling status", and see if that clears things up for me

The value of electricity in the year 1400 was mostly negative. The main form it existed in was large static discharges (lightning) which caused fires, and killed people and trees unfortunate enough to be struck by them. Nobody wanted any electricity. In fact, pretty much everybody feared it. Thus, negative value.

What is the intrinsic value of electricity in 1400 ?

You summed the argument up nicely. Thanks again for being someone I can bounce ideas around with. You're a great asset to our BTC community here.

All four of these points can basically be boiled down to this argument:

There is an ideal distribution of resources, and given perfect knowledge and perfect morality, the price of an item would always reflect that ideal distribution, and would therefore be it's intrinsic value.

I can't really argue with that, except to say that the "ideal" is variable, and mankind does not have perfect knowledge, nor perfect morality. Nor can you deduce what the market price would be in such a situation from any information in the real world.

All that you can know is that the price of an item will asymptotically approach the price it would have in that ideal, which, as I said, is itself a moving target.

Thanks! You say you are open minded and your post confirms it. To delve a little deeper:

1) Yes desires would be subjective but they would be attempting to mimic objective desires and therefore those objective desires in essence determine the subjective desires in the long run. Such is the intrinsic value argument. It is not that A is objectively worth B and therefore the market value equals B rather it is that A is objectively worth B and therefore the market value will approach B as people subjectively realize that it is worth B and the market works toward it. The intrinsic value is never realized because it is intrinsic, rather it is realized because people subjectively choose the correct intrinsic value, which they should. Rather than maximizing personal wants the intrinsic value maximizes the wants of the objective reference frame. Of course this is necessitated by an objective reference frame which is also capable of wants. It may seem contradictory that an objective reference frame can have wants but that is not a contradiction if the wants are necessarily ideal desires ie God.

2) I like the term intersubjectively valid and it comes close to what I am suggesting. However everyone can agree on a bad allocation of resources. What I am suggesting is that there is a maximally great possible allocation of resources. If that were achieved then every good would necessarily be at its intrinsic value. Pt 1 emphasized that this maximally great allocation would simply be the will of God Pt 2 emphasizes that this maximally great allocation can be determined in the long run by a combination of "superpeople" (perfect market information, moralilty and ability) and free market economic law.

3) It is a tautology but a revealing one. It implies that objective value can equal subjective value in certain cases. Therefore in certain cases the subjective market value can equal the intrinsic value. Namely, in the case of an optimal allocation of resources.

4) Of course you are right but the point I was hoping you would make is that people neither have perfect nor imperfect free will. Rather, we have limited free will. Similarly all decisions we make are only partly subjective. Furthermore, if free market theory is true, economic law outweighs preferences in the long run and fully determines prices. This full determination should result in a maximally great allocation of resources in the long run. As previously discussed when this allocation occurs each good should be priced at its "real" "true" and "intrinsic" value.

I hope you are enjoying this conversation! Actually I have been working on a post-free market economic theory of Christian Anarchism and this discussion is helping me improve that theory. The basic idea is that a free market satisfies all people's wants but a post-free market satisfies the wants of an objective reference frame. In other words what an economy would look like if everyone did what they should be doing rather than what they want to do, which, as pointed out, could be the same thing in certain cases.

tl;dr: the answer is 1 BTC=$550 (USD) in December 2013.

lol thats only because we debate things we don't agree on.  The fact we are here says that we probably share a common view of a lot of things.

Just wanna enjoy this for a moment....

You say it so rarely.

myrkul is right.  Lead has most of the attributes of gold and we don't obsess over it as its not pretty.  The value of gold is purely what we project onto it.

As I said before, there is no such thing as "intrinsic" value. Even gold's demand for industrial processes is driven by the subjective desires of the users of those industrial processes. Gold does have several intrinsic properties which make it desirable, but value is not an intrinsic property. It is assigned solely externally and subjectively.

Gold's intrinsic value is a very tiny fraction of it's market price. It's actual use in industry is very limited and if you go by that it is tens of thousands of times over valued. It also takes very little gold to plate a wire or a pane of glass which is one of it's main uses.

The intrinsic value argument doesn't fly with gold. Gold's value is purely subjective.

if there is no point in argung anything, then there is no point in not arguing, right?

I pride myself on my openmindedness and ability to judge opposing viewpoints on their merits instead of discarding them out of hand.

Even with perfect (and uniform) morality, the desires would still be subjective.

It is objective, in that sense, yes. (More accurately, intersubjectively valid) But you can't say that's an intrinsic value, it's just an average of people's subjective valuations.

Which is a tautology.

If free will doesn't exist, then there is little point in arguing anything, is there?