"People today expect money to have a certain purchasing power tomorrow, because of their memory of its purchasing power yesterday."
You just refuted the regression theorem here. I don't disagree.
And where did I accomplish this mighty task?
Writing that I did it is not proving I did it.
The regression theorem state tomorrow expected purchasing power of money is dependent on the known yesterday's purchasing power of money.
The regression is not infinite because there must be a starting point.
For fiat money is when the fiat money was backed by gold; for gold is when it was for the first time exchanged to be used for an indirect exchange (the reason money exist is indirect exchange); for bitcoin was when two pizzas were exchange for 10K btc.
Why gold was exchanged for paper, goats for gold and pizza for Bitcoin is unimportant as praxeology deal not with the reasons of actions but with the consequences of actions.
It is infinite for money, that is, it has go go backwards to a point in time there was no money, only barter. You said it again in the quote just here. fiat -> gold backed money -> gold -> gold first time it was used in indirect exchange --> ...then you missed the necessary precondition for the regression theorem: gold exchanged in barter for its intrinsic value*). It is the only way (according to the regression theorem) there could be a previous gold value for the first indirect exchange.
*) There were probably other commodities before gold, but that is not the point here.