I would contend that formalized property rights are a result of capitalism at work, not a pre-requisite. It's provablely true that capitalism exists even in places for which it is, directly or indirectly, forbidden. If the society at large does not recognize the property rights of a capitalist, then he will find a workaround to that limitation. Thus, strong property rights could not be a requirement.
What about being a
functional part of Capitalism at play? Is that fair? I don't really see how the practice of trade might somehow
cause property rights afterwards.
Property rights are encourged by capitalism because efficiencies in markets favor strong property rights within those markets. It's no secret that governments across human history are practially influenced by the wealthiest among them, and whenever capitalism has been allowed to dominate, the wealthy
include those who became wealthy using capitalist principles, whether they understood them as such or not. While the individial capitalist might favor a monopoly power, his peers resist that for their own ends. This balance of forces favors the legal establishment and enforcement of property rights.
If my earlier reasoning holds,
TL;DR:
Property rights --> scarcity --> specialization + human nature --> tendency to at least some monopolization.
Scarcity is not a result of property rights. Scarcity is a result of reality. I really don't have a method of getting you there from where you are here. Again, it's provablely true that capitalism exists even in societies that forbid it, and actively work to suppress it. Thus property rights cannot be a pre-requisite.
and it's pure Capitalism with no Socialist compromises, nothing to hold people back, then Bonkers could be right about monopolies being a natural equilibrium point.
Well, I can't prove a negative; but since there is no such thing as a natural
and stable monopoly across the recorded history of mankind, I'd wager it's safe to say that she is incorrect on this point.
I think it's an issue of semantics -- even an artist might have a monopoly on their special brand of artwork.
Not without a government granted advantage. Copyright is, by definition, a tempoary monopoly on the reproduction of artworks enforced by
government statutes. Absent the use, or threat of use, of government force; no artist could command a monopoly on similar works, nor on modern machine copies.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IeTybKL1pM4