Maybe by reading Minsky, I'll understand more how banking system works, Milton Friedman does not go in great length about it.
But still, why does the creation of FED lowered reserve to deposit ratio ? If it is not by the confidence of FED to inject liquidities instead of private banks ?
This is again, a quote from milton friedman I took in earlier post.
I suspect also, that before, multiple clearing house existed, or else, why not calling the one central bank.
If JP Morgan had not injected liquidity with the clear house. The effect of the crisis would be more or less local to member banks.
Also, maybe other member banks with better liquidity would have helped instead of JP Morgan.
The net result is that disaster and fire would be local, and the responsability to make the system work is in the hand of people who profits from it.
If every banks depends on FED for liquidity, contrary to before, this put tredemous power in the hand of one man. (or one board)
A failure of such man translate into a failure of the whole system.
More over, contrary to a bank, the FED will never close its door, which give it no incentive to make things work. Worse.
Any failure of FED will make them earn even more power because they are credited to save the system afterward. (Great depression)
If the responsability of providing liquidity would be in the hand of member banks (which coincide with their self interest to prevent a crisis), the whole forest would not burn because of the failure of one man whose own business does not depends on its performance.
W Fractional Reserve lending there is supposed to be a cap limit ratio like 1:10 or something like that. But in real life if somebody wants a loan the bank will write the loan and find the reserves later through interbank lending. You can see in practice that there's no limit except by demand on loans.
The way clearing house associations work were like this: Member banks get together and deposit reserves (gold) in the clearing house balance sheet. The clearing house issue clearing house certificates (CHC). The member banks uses these CHCs as money. At the end of day they settle there balance w the clearing house. In times of crisis, the clearing house issues a clearing house loan certificate (CHLC). The CHLC is NOT backed by the reserves of the clearing house it is credit. If a member defaults on loan the other members absorb the loss and kick out the defaulting member.
I think you have the cause/effect opposite of how I see it
Private banks have incentive to maximize profit. The clearing isn't created for the purpose of preventing crisis. Its created so banks have an efficient credit system. Crisis happens because of some external event. 1907 crisis happened after 2 guys tried to corner the copper market and failed. In the event of crisis, there needs to be a "lender of last resort" to inject liquidity into illiquid credit market.
1) Clearing house only has self interest. -->Profit motive to save their own members first.
2) Central Bank has no profit motive. --> Incentive to look after the system
(BTW, Not only JP Morgan & NYCHA; Rockefeller, Rothchilds & the Treasury also committed funds to inject liquidity into the banks. JP Morgan gets credit for leading the campaign to do this.)
The debate is which motive is more effective? Self interest or the systems interest?
Friedman is a free market believer so he says people do a better job when looking after their own money. This may be true to a degree but it may also lead to "Tragedy of the Commons" type scenario. And when crisis happens it takes a volunteer like JP Morgan to intervene. W a Central Banks its their job to intervene in crisis
OTOH, without profit motive there might not be adequate reward to do a good job. Most govt agencies are slow and incompetent, stuck in bureaucracy, etc..
The debate w Friedman boils down to less regulation vs more regulation. In the 1980's, the influence of Friedman led to policies of deregulation which people blame for the bubbles and subsequent crash so we are back to Keynes (neo-Keynesian & post-Keynesian). Minsky & Modern Money Theory is considered post-Keynesian. Its still heterodox and not mainstream but I think Minskys ideas are gaining more popularity now after his Financial Instability Hypothesis explained the 90s Asian Financial Crisis & predicted the bubble burst
http://www.levyinstitute.org/pubs/wp74.pdf