If a Contract change is made without a Share Holder Vote and changes are made to the contract by the Asset Owner?
I consider this fraud by the Asset Owner and the changes to be invalid.
I don't think you can answer this in the abstract. It's fraud if there's deception or intent to defraud. If, for example, the change remedies something that was objectively a defect in the contract, then it's not fraud. For example, if the contract promises that a particular person will guarantee repayment and that person dies, there's no fraud in changing the guarantor to someone comparably reliably. What's the alternative?I consider this fraud by the Asset Owner and the changes to be invalid.
Sorry I was saying making changes to a contract, that required a vote to change without a vote being done. Even if you are fixing an error in the contract don't you think a vote still should be done to just for transparency purpose.
