Pages:
Author

Topic: Hardcore libertarians: explain your anti-IP-rights position to me. - page 3. (Read 6806 times)

legendary
Activity: 1596
Merit: 1012
Democracy is vulnerable to a 51% attack.
1. The money those people might have paid was all theoretical; it didn't belong to me and wasn't even promised to me, so I haven't lost it in any greater sense than I "lose" $100 million when the numbers on my PowerBall ticket don't get drawn.
Then if I blow up your car, your damages are all theoretical. Maybe it would have broken down and cost more to repair than it was worth. Maybe you would never have sold it.

Quote
2. If we consider this an actionable harm, then we must also include everything else that diminishes the resale value of my Rembrandt. Maybe a stash of new Rembrandts floods the market, or a new biography comes out that proves Rembrandt was a horrible person so no one wants his paintings, or a new biography comes out that proves I'm a horrible person so no one wants to trade with me. All of these diminish the price I can get for my Rembrandt, so I guess we have to outlaw those as well?
As I quite clearly said, their has to be a wrongful act and the harm has to be fairly traceable to a wrongful act. Of course it is perfectly legitimate to "kill with legal blows".

Suppose this happens:
1) I write a novel and have a contract to sell it.
2) You break into my house, open my safe, and copy the novel. You post it on the Internet.
3) My publisher cancels the contract.
You would have to argue that my harm is not fairly traceable to your wrongful act. That's utterly absurd. It's just as traceable as if I had a contract to sell a painting and you defaced it.
newbie
Activity: 42
Merit: 0
How do you distinguish between a trespasser who gets a footprint on your floor from a trespasser who burns down your house? You can't find it in physics and science. You find it in market value. A footprint on a floor doesn't make the house worthless. Burning it down does. But they're both just physical changes.
Market value is right, but I'd say it's not the value of the house that matters - it's the cost of restoring it to its original state. Cleaning up a footprint takes a few minutes; you could hire someone to do it for well under $100. Rebuilding a house takes months of effort and tons of material; it'll cost you tens of thousands of dollars to restore it, plus the cost of renting another home in the meantime. Those are the damages.
newbie
Activity: 42
Merit: 0
You have to accept those kinds of harms. Otherwise, I can spray black paint all over your Rembrandt and you have no damages. After all, it's still paint on canvas. The fact that other people will no longer pay as much for it or pay to see it has to be a recognizable damage.
Nonsense: spraying paint on my canvas when I don't want it there is a harm in itself. You're messing with my property. Spraying paint on my walls or my couch is a harm too, even if it has no effect (or even a positive effect) on the value of that property - as the owner, it's up to me to decide where it stays and what gets stuck to it.

If, as myrkul suggests, you simply take a photograph of the painting, then I've suffered no harm. Even if he uses that photo to make a second copy of the painting, reducing the price people will pay for mine, I've still suffered no harm for a couple reasons:

1. The money those people might have paid was all theoretical; it didn't belong to me and wasn't even promised to me, so I haven't lost it in any greater sense than I "lose" $100 million when the numbers on my PowerBall ticket don't get drawn.

2. If we consider this an actionable harm, then we must also include everything else that diminishes the resale value of my Rembrandt. Maybe a stash of new Rembrandts floods the market, or a new biography comes out that proves Rembrandt was a horrible person so no one wants his paintings, or a new biography comes out that proves I'm a horrible person so no one wants to trade with me. All of these diminish the price I can get for my Rembrandt, so I guess we have to outlaw those as well?
legendary
Activity: 1596
Merit: 1012
Democracy is vulnerable to a 51% attack.
At least use an appropriate analogy. Such as: photocopying or photographing the painting, instead of defacing it.
There is no relevant difference, that's why I used the analogy. They both cause no significant objective changes to the object from a physical, materialist point of view. They both change its subjective and market value. They are both things the rightful owner of the object took steps to prevent. They both took a wrongful act on the person doing them.

How do you distinguish between a trespasser who gets a footprint on your floor from a trespasser who burns down your house? You can't find it in physics and science. You find it in market value. A footprint on a floor doesn't make the house worthless. Burning it down does. But they're both just physical changes.

Once you have a wrongful act, the reason for the damages don't matter. So long as they are fairly traceable to the wrongful act and suffered by someone, they're redressable.

Say I stop you from leaving a store (a wrongful act) and say you miss a critical business meeting (a harm). Even though I didn't physically change you in any way, aren't I still liable for your demonstrated damages from missing the business meeting? That harm is fairly traceable to my wrongful act. It doesn't matter whether I physically changed you or defaced you. It just matters that my act was wrongful and caused your harm.

hero member
Activity: 532
Merit: 500
FIAT LIBERTAS RVAT CAELVM
You have to accept those kinds of harms. Otherwise, I can spray black paint all over your Rembrandt and you have no damages. After all, it's still paint on canvas. The fact that other people will no longer pay as much for it or pay to see it has to be a recognizable damage.

At least use an appropriate analogy. Such as: photocopying or photographing the painting, instead of defacing it.
legendary
Activity: 1596
Merit: 1012
Democracy is vulnerable to a 51% attack.
You're overlooking an important difference between exposing film to light and sharing a poem. In the first scenario, Mark has damaged Jack's property, and frankly I suspect he'd be considered the primary responsible party even if he weren't trespassing (unless Jeff tricked him into damaging the film).
Not at all. Ordinarily, people have a reasonable expectation that they can turn lights on and not break things. If he wasn't trespassing, he has done nothing wrong, the responsibility would be wholly on the person who left the vulnerable film in an area where it could easily and innocently be exposed to light and who then allowed people into that area.

However, when we trespass, we assume liability for any damage we do because the trespass itself is the predicate wrongful act. You can leave our valuable painting on the table to dry. If you invite someone into your home and they spill soda on it, they can argue you shouldn't have left it there and invite them in. But a trespasser can make no such argument and so is responsible for the damage. For liability to exist, the person has to do something negligent or willfully damaging. Turning on a light in a house you were invited into is neither.

Quote
In the second scenario, Mark has caused no harm to Jack; the only possible "wrong" in that situation would be the violation of the contract between Jack and Jeff, but if he's trespassing, there's been no wrong committed at all because the contract hasn't been breached.
Of course if Mark actually caused no harm to Jack, then even though Jack did something wrong, Mark has zero damages and so no reason to sue. But assume for the sake of argument Jack can demonstrate actual harm fairly traceable to Mark's trespass. For example, say he had a publishing contract for the poem and the publisher backs out.

You have to accept those kinds of harms. Otherwise, I can spray black paint all over your Rembrandt and you have no damages. After all, it's still paint on canvas. The fact that other people will no longer pay as much for it or pay to see it has to be a recognizable damage.
newbie
Activity: 42
Merit: 0
Say Jack loans Jeff some film that can be destroyed by light. Mark trespasses on Jeff's property and exposes the film to light. Jack can sue Mark for the damages he suffered as a result of Mark's trespass. If Mark wasn't trespassing, Jeff would be the primary responsible party, because he certainly can reasonably be expected to protect film from light exposure by those he authorized. But he can't police an intruder. (You might argue Jack should sue Jeff and then Jeff has to add Mark as an additional party. But if Jeff ignores the lawsuit, Jack should certainly be able to go after Mark directly.) If a wrong against one party harms another, the harmed party has a suit.

Now imagine Jack loans Jeff his poem pursuant to a contract where Jeff agrees not to share it. If Mark conspires with Jeff to share the poem even though Mark promised not to let anyone do that, the contract is enforceable against him under a direct agency theory. If he doesn't conspire with Jeff, he has to trespasses to get the poem, Jack has an action against him because his trespass makes him an indirect party just as in the film example.
You're overlooking an important difference between exposing film to light and sharing a poem. In the first scenario, Mark has damaged Jack's property, and frankly I suspect he'd be considered the primary responsible party even if he weren't trespassing (unless Jeff tricked him into damaging the film). In the second scenario, Mark has caused no harm to Jack; the only possible "wrong" in that situation would be the violation of the contract between Jack and Jeff, but if he's trespassing, there's been no wrong committed at all because the contract hasn't been breached.
donator
Activity: 1419
Merit: 1015
No offense toast, but Kinsella's paper "Against Intellectual Property" is found in a Google search and is an easy read. Also, there's a number of YouTube videos where he's given speeches on the topic.

Here's a portion of a post I made about a year ago on the topic:
Quote
I basically framed Kinsella's argument in such a fashion that [Person_I_Was_Talking_To] cannot reasonably reply in favor of intellectual property.

This is a libertarian-utilitarian position that relies on the false premise logical fallacy.

1) If a person has innovated, it is because of intellectual property laws protecting their work.
2) Innovation makes people happy.
3) Therefore, we should support intellectual property laws.

The premise here, #1, while syntactically-correct, is actually incorrect. Utilitarians take this for granted, however. They rely on the fact that their audience accepts that the premise is the only possible conclusion for why people innovate. They also use words like "optimal level" if you disagree that intellectual property laws provide innovation. However I asked a few questions on the free market to get [Person_I_Was_Talking_To] to verify he only legitimately saw a need to intervene in the market if there was a market failure. This is a distinction from "optimal level", because libertarian-utilitarians distinguish themselves from left-utilitarians in that they want to practice restraint, and only intervene if absolutely necessary. In other words, they don't want to make subjective calls.

My point here was that when it comes to deriving man of his liberties, the onus is on the person wanting to take the liberties away to actually and legitimately prove that it is worthwhile. This is why I asked for just one example where there was a clearly-measurable increase in happiness due to IP law.

With public goods like a lighthouse, you could reasonably make such an argument because you can potentially find more people benefiting from it than paying for it, especially over time.

However, with intellectual property you cannot, because there is clearly at least one person upset that you are punishing them, and the increase in happiness for the person holding the intellectual property is immeasurable and cloudy at best. Additionally, it is unreasonable to make the argument that their happiness is greater than that of the person you are punishing, or the next person, or the next person, or the next person...

Man has an innate evolutionary (or God-given) desire to reproduce, this means we will innovate in order to gain whatever possible edge we can over other potential mates. We don't need artificial incentives to do this, and, in fact, I contend that such encumbrances only hinder innovation. That's basically my point and that is what empirical evidence shows. The first man to make the wheel did not do so because his work was going to be protected. Shakespeare based most of his works off of other's IP and reinforced his "copyright" by regularly updating and revising his plays, not using government thugs. Game developers today enforce their IP by making content "subscribable". IE, you pay a monthly fee.

Monthly fees are the model for most current and future IP that I know of in movies, games, and music. A smart theater of the "future" should be offering a subscription-based model where you pay a monthly fee to watch movies on the big screen. These changes do not require government intervention and are a great business model for the current environment.

For Kinsella's full paper (where he makes the points against the deontological argument, primarily):
http://www.mises.org/journals/jls/15_2/15_2_1.pdf
legendary
Activity: 1596
Merit: 1012
Democracy is vulnerable to a 51% attack.
Show me an actual case where a contract (NOT some other actionable matter) was enforced against a someone who was not a party to the contract either as a direct signatory or an agent or participant in a direct signatory.
There are many such examples in our world, largely because it is not Libertarian.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tortious_interference

In a Libertarian world, some of these cases would still exist and some wouldn't. But they would be understood largely on the basis of weak agency and indirect parties rather than "the government passed a law that says you can't do that, so you can't".

Say Jack loans Jeff some film that can be destroyed by light. Mark trespasses on Jeff's property and exposes the film to light. Jack can sue Mark for the damages he suffered as a result of Mark's trespass. If Mark wasn't trespassing, Jeff would be the primary responsible party, because he certainly can reasonably be expected to protect film from light exposure by those he authorized. But he can't police an intruder. (You might argue Jack should sue Jeff and then Jeff has to add Mark as an additional party. But if Jeff ignores the lawsuit, Jack should certainly be able to go after Mark directly.) If a wrong against one party harms another, the harmed party has a suit.

Now imagine Jack loans Jeff his poem pursuant to a contract where Jeff agrees not to share it. If Mark conspires with Jeff to share the poem even though Mark promised not to let anyone do that, the contract is enforceable against him under a direct agency theory. If he doesn't conspire with Jeff, he has to trespasses to get the poem, Jack has an action against him because his trespass makes him an indirect party just as in the film example.
newbie
Activity: 53
Merit: 0
You cannot have transferrable property rights if contracts aren't enforceable against third parties.

In what world is a contract enforced against a non-participant?

Show me an actual case where a contract (NOT some other actionable matter) was enforced against a someone who was not a party to the contract either as a direct signatory or an agent or participant in a direct signatory.

In your contrived Jeff example, most of the time Jeff is not part of the contract violation lawsuit.  However, as you describe it, Jeff was inducing people to violate the law, which is itself illegal and could be sued on that basis.  Not for violating the contract, because Jeff didn't if he wasn't a party to it!  This is a similar principle to that which finds a pimp, or a 'Fagin' ala Oliver Twist, is violating the law even if not a party to the actual criminal act.
newbie
Activity: 53
Merit: 0
But whatever that other mechanism is that permits transferrable property rights, unless it's carefully rigged not to, it will apply to other types of rights as well.

Oh please.

The "property right" is what is enforced, not the transfer of the right.

The contract or agreement effects the transfer and has no bearing on third parties.

The property right being transferred is an entirely separate matter for enforcement.
newbie
Activity: 53
Merit: 0
This universe doesn't grant any rights to anyone. Rights are invented by humans for political control.

Evidently you have a misunderstanding of what are rights vs. civil liberties.

Rights were identified by humans, not created.

The discussion and concept of rights are co-opted by those seeking unjust power and authority, and the terminology twisted and confused as a means for obtaining that power.  If people cannot identity what are rights, and what are confusingly called civil rights instead of civil liberties, the people will be mentally and eventually physically subject to those who can obtain power thru that confusion.

"[All men] are endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable Rights..."  works just as well if you believe in a supreme intelligent creator or whether you believe in evolution thru random chance and survival of the fittest.

"That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed."

And FYI, "secure" is not "create" or "grant" or "obtain".  "Secure" in that context means to protect from violation that which one already has.  And "just powers" come only from "the consent of the governed."

And in conclusion...

"That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government...  But when a long train of abuses and usurpations, pursuing invariably the same Object evinces a design to reduce them under absolute Despotism, it is their right, it is their duty, to throw off such Government."
sr. member
Activity: 434
Merit: 252
youtube.com/ericfontainejazz now accepts bitcoin
property is theft. 

Dammit!!!  I'm debating in the Noobie forum!  Nooooo!!!   Shocked
legendary
Activity: 2212
Merit: 1008
property is theft. 
sr. member
Activity: 434
Merit: 252
youtube.com/ericfontainejazz now accepts bitcoin
So-called "intellectual property" violates real property rights, plain and simple.

Agreed for the most part. I know of someone who refuses to copyright his online material because he believes that you shouldn't have contracts and/or agreements with the government, which is what he claims a copyright is. However, he claims ownership of his material, and requests people not steal it by duplicating it.

Does your musician friend *strongly request* that people don't copy the music he creates, or does he *threaten violence* or some sort of legal (including non-government court) action should you copy?
legendary
Activity: 2492
Merit: 1491
LEALANA Bitcoin Grim Reaper
muc
newbie
Activity: 42
Merit: 0
So-called "intellectual property" violates real property rights, plain and simple.

Agreed for the most part. I know of someone who refuses to copyright his online material because he believes that you shouldn't have contracts and/or agreements with the government, which is what he claims a copyright is. However, he claims ownership of his material, and requests people not steal it by duplicating it.
sr. member
Activity: 434
Merit: 252
youtube.com/ericfontainejazz now accepts bitcoin
EULAs are totally invalid contracts.  There is no "meeting of the minds" whereby two parties come to a mutually-understood agreement.  There is almost zero effort by these big corporations to communicate in plain English what exactly all that legalize BS is saying.  And then they hide some little innocent looking phrase cleverly hidden in the 20 pages of dense text that gives them carte-blance to do whatever they want.  Each party must understand what he/she is agreeing to inorder for there to be a valid contract.  At the minimum, there would need to be some multiple-choice quiz after the end of reading the damn EULA to ensure that I, the user, actually understand what I am agreeing to.  The other glaringly obvious flaw with EULAs is the fact that I don't actually have to sign it until after I have purchased it from the store clerk!   Shocked

Which is why I called them 'not contracts'. They're an attempt to end-run around copyright laws and screw customers. Especially with that 'sign after you buy' thing.

That said, I haven't had to see EULA in a long time. FLOSS is your friend!

Myrkul, I was agreeing with you, just elaborating.  Just like my previous miscommunication with you when I commented about the bitcoin symbol.  Anyway, I'm in the same boat as you...I switched exclusively to Linux and almost exclusively to Free/Libre-Open-Source-Software about a year ago and have never looked back.  Only every once in a while when I use some proprietary software like dropbox or whatever that I have to click "agree".
hero member
Activity: 532
Merit: 500
FIAT LIBERTAS RVAT CAELVM
EULAs are totally invalid contracts.  There is no "meeting of the minds" whereby two parties come to a mutually-understood agreement.  There is almost zero effort by these big corporations to communicate in plain English what exactly all that legalize BS is saying.  And then they hide some little innocent looking phrase cleverly hidden in the 20 pages of dense text that gives them carte-blance to do whatever they want.  Each party must understand what he/she is agreeing to inorder for there to be a valid contract.  At the minimum, there would need to be some multiple-choice quiz after the end of reading the damn EULA to ensure that I, the user, actually understand what I am agreeing to.  The other glaringly obvious flaw with EULAs is the fact that I don't actually have to sign it until after I have purchased it from the store clerk!   Shocked

Which is why I called them 'not contracts'. They're an attempt to end-run around copyright laws and screw customers. Especially with that 'sign after you buy' thing.

That said, I haven't had to see EULA in a long time. FLOSS is your friend!
sr. member
Activity: 434
Merit: 252
youtube.com/ericfontainejazz now accepts bitcoin
The 'blue' crack was hyperbole. But, all too often, an accurate one. The defining characteristic of a Libertarian is our love for debate (as evinced by the length of this thread)

Well the whole premise of voluntaryism/market-anarchism/libertarianism is that disputes should be handled through reason (through contracts & agreements) first, not guns (from legislative fiat).  That's why we like to debate.  Smiley

EULAs are not contracts, and they're not enforceable.

EULAs are totally invalid contracts.  There is no "meeting of the minds" whereby two parties come to a mutually-understood agreement.  There is almost zero effort by these big corporations to communicate in plain English what exactly all that legalize BS is saying.  And then they hide some little innocent looking phrase cleverly hidden in the 20 pages of dense text that gives them carte-blance to do whatever they want.  Each party must understand what he/she is agreeing to inorder for there to be a valid contract.  At the minimum, there would need to be some multiple-choice quiz after the end of reading the damn EULA to ensure that I, the user, actually understand what I am agreeing to.  The other glaringly obvious flaw with EULAs is the fact that I don't actually have to sign it until after I have purchased it from the store clerk!   Shocked
Pages:
Jump to: