I think it would be more productive/educational to frame the question like this:
A operates a ponzi scheme and B, C, and D are willing participants. X offers to, and enters into, a transaction with "B" that he calls "insurance" which will purportedly protect B against losses if A defaults. Y offers to, and enters into, a transaction with "C" that he calls a "bet" which will purportedly pay C if A defaults. Z offers to, and enters into, a transaction with "D" that he calls a "put option" which will allow D to sell D's position in A's scheme to Z at some date in the distant future.
The ponzi collapses and A defaults. X fails to pay the claim on the "insurance policy". Y fails to honor his wager. Z refuses to allow D to exercise the option.
Are X, Y, and Z subject to civil liability (in favor of B, C, D, or state/federal regulatory agencies)? Are X, Y, and Z subject to prosecution in any jurisdictions? Which ones, and what statutes would they be charged with violating?
How do the answers differ depending on the nation(s) or states/provinces where B,C,D,X,Y, and Z reside or do business?
I'm tired, and heading to bed. But I just thought I'd give a quick (not well thoughtout) answer to your post. In the morning I might feel differently about my answer. But here it is for now:
X is liable for breach of contract to B.
Y is liable for breach of contract to C.
Z is liable for breach of contract to D.
Unless there is a defense such as illegality. A court will not enforce an illegal contract. Therefore, if for example, Y & C's contract of the "bet" is considered illegal gambling, then C has no remedy against Y, not even an equitable remedy.
X,Y, & Z could be subject to prosecution for criminal fraud in almost any jurisdiction in which they reside, do business, or in which they entered into the contract. (This would require a lengthy discussion of conflict of laws and constitutional law, but that's the general rule.)
I am curious why you did not discuss potential civil/criminal liability for selling insurance without a license, illegal wagering/bookmaking, selling securities without a license, and selling unregistered securities, especially in light of your experience with business law.
These seem like significant issues that X, Y, and Z would want to address, especially if their explanation for why they're not part of A's criminal enterprise is "We're just ordinary businessmen selling insurance/bookmaking/securities!"
Could you explain your understanding of the relationship between "conflict of laws" and criminal charges? I am only familiar with that term being used in a civil context.
Everything I said in my prior post was correct, I just didn't elaborate like I usually do. Mostly because I qualified that response with
"I'm tired, and heading to bed. But I just thought I'd give a quick (not well thought out) answer to your post."
lol
As far as the securities issue, I discussed that in a prior post. We're not even sure at this point if bitcoins are considered securities by the SEC under the Securities Act of 1933. Also, this is such a novel area of the law, there could be other political factors at play out there that we simply aren't aware of. The federal government could feel that intervention on behalf of the SEC to protect bitcoin investors might even "legitimize" bitcoins in the eyes of the public, and therefore they are refusing to classify them as securities for this very purpose.
Illegal wagering/bookmaking and selling insurance without a license are state law issues and are criminal offenses. Every state is different, every jurisdiction has different penalties. Sure they are being sold across state lines. And that's where the whole federal enforcement can come into play. Possibly they could be investigated for the racketeering charges I discussed in a prior post. (Mail fraud, wire fraud, conspiracy, etc.)
Plus all of the above primarily deals with the criminal liability of a party. It is the civil liability that I feel most investors that have lost out on would be interested in. Sure there could be some civil action against them for breach of these criminal statutes as well, but I feel recovery would be pretty limited there for several reasons. 1) They likely have already disposed of the money and don't have significant enough assets to make it worth while to even sue them, except maybe as part of a larger plan to go after the big fish pirate. 2) Litigation would be extremely expensive. Sure this could be classified as a Rule 23 Class Action lawsuit, but there would be so many plaintiffs and so little money, the attorney would be the only one that actually recovers any material amount. 3) Once again, you probably can't even sue a "bookmaker". What theory are you going to sue them on? You made an illegal bet and they didn't pay when you won? That's the equivalent of suing a crack dealer, because he gave you substandard crack. Courts will not enforce illegal contracts.
It seems you have some legal experience, so I think you'll be able to see where the PA Supreme Court was going in its analysis of criminal conflict of laws rule in Commonwealth v. Eichinger, 915 A.2d 1122 (2007):
To start this analysis, we first note that procedural rules and substantive law require separate considerations. It is a fundamental principle of conflicts of laws that a court will use the procedural rules of its own state. "That is true in both civil and criminal cases, but especially in criminal cases as a sort of corollary to the local nature of substantive criminal law. Procedures in criminal cases are always those of the forum." Leflar, American Conflicts Law, Fourth Edition, § 116 (1977). Procedural rules are "that which prescribe the methods of enforcing rights." Commonwealth v. Sanchez, 716 A.2d at 1224. On the other hand, substantive law "gives or defines the right." Id.
In Commonwealth v. Sanchez, we held that an issue of search and seizure is substantive as it involves a strict question of constitutional law which concerns the fundamental right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures. Id. Eichinger raises a constitutional question under the Fifth Amendment, which implicates his right to remain silent and his right to counsel, therefore, the issue must be addressed under the principles of conflict between substantive laws.
As noted before, our choice of law rule when there is a conflict between the substantive criminal laws of this Commonwealth and those of a sister-state, requires that we analyze the policies and interests underlying the rule of each state so that the policy of the jurisdiction most immediately concerned will be applied. Commonwealth v. Sanchez, 552 Pa. 570, 716 A.2d 1221, 1223-24 (Pa. 1998). But it remains implicit in this analysis that there be a conflict between the substantive law of New Jersey and the law of Pennsylvania.
Conflict of Laws rules are used in criminal contexts just like they are in civil. Typically a substantive v. procedural issue. But basically I was just pointing out in my prior post, that we have no idea how these conflicts might come into play. We don't even know where these people are located and for that matter, exactly what they could be charged with anyway. All I am able to do at this point is guess and theorize about what possible rights and remedies the players will all have. But beyond that, in a criminal or civil context, we're likely dealing with international law as well. Treaties between the United States and whatever nation the would be defendant is in. Can the US extradite him for a criminal case? For a civil case, can a United States court assert personal jurisdiction over him? Can the US court even seize any of his assets if they did? Remember, in a civil context, a judgment without any assets to collect is only worth the paper it is written on. Without assets to collect, why sue?