The most simple way is to look at the ownership of the newly created money
The government owes it to the central bank, to which it hence belongs.
So government owes money to FED, and FED belongs to government, so the government owes money to himself. If the government owes large amount of the national debt to himself, who cares
If you don't have the ownership of some money, how can you loan those money to someone else?
There is no money before the central bank loans it to the government: it is the act of loaning the money that creates it, hence making the central bank its owner.
Again, if you loan something that does not exist and do not belong to you to someone else, that is fraud
That would be crime. I can lend you all the money in the FED if I don't need to have the ownership of those money
It is the loan that creates the ownership: before that loan, there is no money, hence no ownership.
This has nothing to do with the sequence: After the loan, there is money, and there is ownership, who get this ownership and what did they pay for it?
Let's do a step by step analysis: When government sell $1 billion asset (bond, since debt=asset in the future) to FED, FED must first have the ownership of that $1 billion money, then government get the ownership of those money from FED, in exchange they transfer the ownership of their bond to FED. Now the FED owns the bond, means they become the creditor of the government
The FED has no money: what it has is the power to loan money that did not yet exist before that loan.
Don't think in the way of loan, that just make it more difficult to see the simple truth. Loan is just a way to exchange the ownership, it does not CREATE the ownership, if some ownership were created out of nothing after a loan process, something must went wrong
To create ownership for something, either you create it by work(plant a flower/dig out the gold), or you rob it (conquer a country). Never heard about that you can get the ownership of something by loan it
If government issue money by themselves, they would issue $1 billion money backed by their $1 billion worth of assets (bond).
This makes no sense: the government could not loan money to itself.
If you have one ounce of gold, you can issue a note that worth one ounce of gold, and that note get a transaction value of one ounce of gold (backed by your gold reserve). No loan involved here. Same, the government can issue notes that worth their corresponding asset without using any loan process. But unfortunately, they don't have this right today, both of the presidents who ever tried to issue government money have been assassinated
http://www.michaeljournal.org/lincolnkennedy.htmBut there is a HUGE difference here: They would have BOTH the ownership of the issued money and the ownership of their asset. They spend money to exchange for some products/services, and if someone come back to redeem the money, they give them asset
The difference here is that the money the government owed to itself would be already paid since the debtor and the creditor would be the same.
That's true, by this means, government will not have a debt, their net asset value is positive