An impulse wave never happens without a counterpart because impulses only occur in the direction of the trend. In this case the trend is down because we have an impulse down, this may be part of an ABC, or it may be a primary wave (very bearish).
Is it possible that this impulse is 'a' of an expanded flat, with the local top yesterday at $389 (Stamp) being the start of 'a', the high ($395) being the top of b and this impulse being c, thereby completing the correction and being a wave iv of C ?
Hypothetically speaking ... not saying it is, just asking if there is anything that rules this out.
EDIT : FWIW, I am not challenging your count (it's mostly what I see too, but I can't see a clear impulse up for v on Stamp), just asking if this is a valid alternative count, however probable