1. If HIV was present for decades, why some scientists argue, that AIDS is primarily a disease of blacks, not the white man in Africa?
It's not a matter of opinion, or something for scientists to argue. If more black people in Africa have AIDS, it's probably because the majority of the African population is black.
But one major problem with the AIDS statistics for Africa is that they weren't doing AIDS tests. They just wrote down "AIDS" for anyone with a runny nose or the flu, and then reported that 1 in 4 Africans has AIDS. It's not true.
So the good news is that AIDS isn't being used to exterminate Africans. Because Africans don't have as much AIDS as we've been told.
2. Why is AIDS in the US is first discovered among white gay men, but not among blacks?
I've read that AIDS was originally called GRID, Gay-Related Immune Disease. It was first associated with the openly-gay culture in places with significant groups of openly gay men, such as New York. The majority of openly gay men at the time were white, probably in part because white people were the majority population in the U.S.
I think you are also aware that the majority of black men in the U.S. who have sexual relations with other men do not openly admit it. So when medical researchers first went to the gay communities to find out about AIDS, they found a disproportionate number of white gays.
3. Why the first cases of HIV were not observed among Americans of Asian origin or the Indians?
Before AIDS was discovered by doctors and scientists, people were dying from it and the cause of death would be listed as pneumonia or another illness. Doctors didn't notice 50% of all Asian patients coming in with pneumonia, or 50% of all their Indian patients coming in with pneumonia. If they had, they would have searched for some reason within the Asian or Indian communities which could have been causing it. But it was gays that were noticed to have a new illness among their group, so they investigated gay people. There were probably other people who had AIDS, but they weren't openly gay, so those people continued to die "of pneumonia" because there was nothing else to identify their illness as AIDS until the virus was isolated.
4. Why were not observed cases among women?
There was no blood test for AIDS. It was, and still is, a primarily gay disease. Lesbians do not typically transmit AIDS to each other, and women typically do not transmit AIDS to men. Because when a man has sex with a woman, her blood or bodily fluid usually does not get into the man's bloodstream.
So if a woman gets AIDS, she will probably die without passing it on to anyone else. But when a gay man gets AIDS, he is more likely to pass it on to multiple other gay men, and each of them are very likely to pass it on to others. That's why it spread among gays instead of among straight people.
Most women who get AIDS were infected by bisexual men. Transmission is more likely with anal sex, because there is damage and bleeding which allows the semen into the bloodstream.
There are places in Africa where "dry sex" is considered the cultural norm among some groups, and women will put herbs or toothpaste into their vaginas to dry themselves out. Then the sex has more friction, but also results in more tearing of the vaginal tissue and a greater chance of AIDS transmission.
5. Why were also cases in the elderly, in people with chronic diseases?
Some of those cases certainly involved AIDS-infected blood transfusions.
6. Why did not exist "incubation period" for HIV in the United States?
I don't know what you mean, but there are at least 3 major strains of HIV. One is more prevalent in the U.S., one is more prevalent in Africa, and one is more prevalent in Asia. There is nothing unusual about that.
The introduction of the HIV virus by hepatitis B was a deliberate attempt to liquidate the gay community, and to blame gay men for the spread of the disease in the general population because of their depravity and lifestyle of high risk.
No one has forced gay men to infect each other with AIDS. They have known about AIDS for 30 years, and it's still being transmitted to new patients every day.
No one has forced straight people to act differently to prevent themselves from getting AIDS. If straight people acted like gay people, they would have just as much AIDS. But it would spread more slowly, since men give it to women more than women give it to men.
Is it 100 times more likely for a gay person to get AIDS? Or is it more than that?
It's not a conspiracy, it's just physics. A torn anus lets the AIDS virus into the bloodstream more easily than a penis, and the vagina doesn't let it in easily unless the vagina is torn.
And then the average gay person has over 10 times more sexual partners than the average straight person, compounding their already-increased risk.
How is the government responsible for that?