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Topic: Is deflation truly that bad for an economy? - page 4. (Read 24939 times)

hero member
Activity: 784
Merit: 500
If there would be no or less debt, deflation wouldn't be a problem at all. Inflation is needed to devalue debt which is the basis to make new debt. Since today's economic growth is build on massive debt, deflation is dangerous indeed.

Yes.  But economic growth is not based upon massive debt.  That's about like saying that your wealth is based upon a loan.
If you bought a luxury car, and you smoke expensive sigars, on credit, you can't really say that you're a rich man or woman can't you ?
So if you have "economic growth" based on a Mount Everest of debt, do you really have economic growth ?  Or are you living off future wealth ?


That's how Capitalism works.  Capital drives growth.  When credit market expands you have growth.  Then it reaches an upper bound and theres reversion, and credit market contracts.

The key is to keep inflation constant so the the credit contractions don't push us into recessions, then deflationary spiral.  Nothing new here, everybody knows this
legendary
Activity: 3514
Merit: 1280
English ⬄ Russian Translation Services
If there would be no or less debt, deflation wouldn't be a problem at all. Inflation is needed to devalue debt which is the basis to make new debt. Since today's economic growth is build on massive debt, deflation is dangerous indeed.

Yes.  But economic growth is not based upon massive debt.  That's about like saying that your wealth is based upon a loan.
If you bought a luxury car, and you smoke expensive sigars, on credit, you can't really say that you're a rich man or woman can't you ?
So if you have "economic growth" based on a Mount Everest of debt, do you really have economic growth ?  Or are you living off future wealth ?

Nevertheless, this has unforeseen consequences. Say, you happily live (or someone else lives, for that matter) off debt all your life and then one day you die. What happens to debt? Could we draw an analogy here with the debt being written off in the end on a global scale?

What is debt then actually?
hero member
Activity: 770
Merit: 629
If there would be no or less debt, deflation wouldn't be a problem at all. Inflation is needed to devalue debt which is the basis to make new debt. Since today's economic growth is build on massive debt, deflation is dangerous indeed.

Yes.  But economic growth is not based upon massive debt.  That's about like saying that your wealth is based upon a loan.
If you bought a luxury car, and you smoke expensive sigars, on credit, you can't really say that you're a rich man or woman can't you ?
So if you have "economic growth" based on a Mount Everest of debt, do you really have economic growth ?  Or are you living off future wealth ?
legendary
Activity: 1610
Merit: 1183
"How did we get to this point?"

One word: INFLATION.

Increasing the money supply lowers interest rates: which encourages borrowing and discourages saving.

Very simple, unbelievably destructive.
hero member
Activity: 770
Merit: 629
The other problem here (and sorry for jumping in the middle) is the % of total money spent for the shareholders and the laborers. In this case, I imagine the latter spends a far greater % of their money than the former. Therefore, increasing the amount to the laborers ensures that a greater % of that gets funneled back into the economy via consumption than if shareholders saw an increase.

This is again not a matter of spending or not spending, but of spending *on what*.  If you think of share holders as wealthier than labourers, which must be your assumption to think of a different spending profile, then share holders probably spend more on investment goods and less on consumption goods, and spend more on luxury items and less on mass items.

Offer will adapt to demand.  So if share holders spend more on investment goods, then that is simply as if the savings rate is larger in the economy.  The amount of increase in capital goods will be larger.  If share holders spend more on luxury goods, that means that production will orient more on luxury goods.

So the only thing you do by shifting rewards from share holders to labourers, in as much as their demand profiles are different, is that you will produce less luxury goods and less capital goods, and that you will produce more mass goods.

Instead of building private launching rigs that send private spaceships to the moon, you will sell mobile phones and coca cola.
Instead of companies that build private jets, you will have Boeing and Airbus building aircrafts for mass transportation.  Instead of having companies that build luxury castles, you will have companies that build apartment buildings.

tyz
legendary
Activity: 3360
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If there would be no or less debt, deflation wouldn't be a problem at all. Inflation is needed to devalue debt which is the basis to make new debt. Since today's economic growth is build on massive debt, deflation is dangerous indeed.
hero member
Activity: 784
Merit: 500
The other problem here (and sorry for jumping in the middle) is the % of total money spent for the shareholders and the laborers. In this case, I imagine the latter spends a far greater % of their money than the former. Therefore, increasing the amount to the laborers ensures that a greater % of that gets funneled back into the economy via consumption than if shareholders saw an increase.

Yes exactly.  You want wealth distributed amongst a robust middle class that does most of the consumption.  If capital has too much wealth you have inequality and that's not good for anyone
legendary
Activity: 2828
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If we see a huge deflation, we pretty much see a slowing economy which isn't something retailers would want to see. Banks usually try to stop things like this from happening, so with more centralization and a false sense of USD's value, yeah retailers would probably take Bitcoin. Dell started, Overstock, Dish, ect. More and more will hop on.
newbie
Activity: 56
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The other problem here (and sorry for jumping in the middle) is the % of total money spent for the shareholders and the laborers. In this case, I imagine the latter spends a far greater % of their money than the former. Therefore, increasing the amount to the laborers ensures that a greater % of that gets funneled back into the economy via consumption than if shareholders saw an increase.
hero member
Activity: 784
Merit: 500
You make too many assumptions about static earnings.  If revenues increase then theres money to increase both dividends and wages.  There's no inverse relationship between wages and dividends.  I dont know why you think there is.  

We're not talking about the same thing.  The production is the same, the sales price is the same, the costs of supplies is the same.

The argument was: a producer should INCREASE the wages (for the same labour) in order to get MORE CONSUMPTION.  Now that's crazy, because if, all else equal, the producer increases wages, he has to take it from the profit he makes, and hence reduce dividends by exactly the same amount.  So what his labourers will consume more with their increased wages for the same amount of labour, the share holders will consume less with their reduced dividends.

(yes, yes, their demands will be DIFFERENT IN NATURE, but we said that already).

Suppose you make tablets.  You make 500 of them, each costs $150.-  Suppose your labourers buy 100 of them, and your share holders also buy 100 of them.  300 are sold to the rest of the economy.  Now, if you increase the wages of your labourers, maybe they will buy 150 of them now.  But you had to diminish the dividends to your shareholders, which only buy 50 of them.

You've shifted simply the consumption from your share holders to your labourers by increasing their wages (and by decreasing by the same amount the dividends).


Quote
There is no point in entertaining examples w no basis in reality.  Robots doing work for free making stuff for rich people?   Roll Eyes

It is called a gedanken experiment, to test the logic.  


You don't understand my argument.  I'm making the Old Keynesian argument.  That economy is driven by aggregate demand.  One way to boost aggregate demand is to boost wages.  Again I'm talking about macro not micro.

The people who build tables don't need to buy tables.  But if their wages increase they'll increase consumption , thereby increasing GDP.  Which benefit the table factory.  There's many policy that can have the same effect of boosting wages besides giving them a raise.  For example, lowering their taxes and compensate by raising tax on capital.
hero member
Activity: 770
Merit: 629
You make too many assumptions about static earnings.  If revenues increase then theres money to increase both dividends and wages.  There's no inverse relationship between wages and dividends.  I dont know why you think there is.  

We're not talking about the same thing.  The production is the same, the sales price is the same, the costs of supplies is the same.

The argument was: a producer should INCREASE the wages (for the same labour) in order to get MORE CONSUMPTION.  Now that's crazy, because if, all else equal, the producer increases wages, he has to take it from the profit he makes, and hence reduce dividends by exactly the same amount.  So what his labourers will consume more with their increased wages for the same amount of labour, the share holders will consume less with their reduced dividends.

(yes, yes, their demands will be DIFFERENT IN NATURE, but we said that already).

Suppose you make tablets.  You make 500 of them, each costs $150.-  Suppose your labourers buy 100 of them, and your share holders also buy 100 of them.  300 are sold to the rest of the economy.  Now, if you increase the wages of your labourers, maybe they will buy 150 of them now.  But you had to diminish the dividends to your shareholders, which only buy 50 of them.

You've shifted simply the consumption from your share holders to your labourers by increasing their wages (and by decreasing by the same amount the dividends).


Quote
There is no point in entertaining examples w no basis in reality.  Robots doing work for free making stuff for rich people?   Roll Eyes

It is called a gedanken experiment, to test the logic.  
hero member
Activity: 784
Merit: 500
I made that argument that increased wages would in turn increase aggregate demand.  Its a macro argument not micro.  When people have nore money they buy more stuff.  Simple as that

It doesn't of course, because the amount by which wages increase, the dividends decrease.  The same amount of money is set in circulation, it only targets different people (because different production factors).  As such, of course, demand will be different in quality.

Quote
Shareholders cant do all the consumption for all of society.  You need a wide consumer base.  One guy buying a $10mm yatch fromnone business is not same as 1mm people buying various $10 items from many business

It is a different demand, and there will be different products.

Consider a totally automatic economy, completely robotized, that produces luxury sports cars, palaces, kaviar and champagne.  With robotized high-level medecine, and every other thing a rich person may need or desire.  And of course robots.  You could think of an economy that is totally run automatically, and where all the profits go to their shareholders, which are also the consumers of these luxury products.  The economic circle is closed, and not a single wage is paid, and not a single amount of labour is sold.  In this case, the share holders are the sole consumers, and generate the total agregate demand for the goods they produce.

This is an extreme case, but it illustrates that "wages" do not play a specific role in the circulation of money.  It only plays an important role when labour is important, but it has no fundamental role.

When labour is important (when it is needed in large quantities in industry), then of course industry needs to answer the demand of the potential labourers to a sufficient extend to buy their labour.  And that's what wages are, and that's why the industry is mass-consumption oriented.

But that doesn't have to be so.  Industry can be luxury oriented if labour is not needed in large quantities, or, as in my gedanken experiment, at all.



You make too many assumptions about static earnings.  If revenues increase then theres money to increase both dividends and wages.  There's no inverse relationship between wages and dividends.  I dont know why you think there is. 

There is no point in entertaining examples w no basis in reality.  Robots doing work for free making stuff for rich people?   Roll Eyes
hero member
Activity: 770
Merit: 629
I made that argument that increased wages would in turn increase aggregate demand.  Its a macro argument not micro.  When people have nore money they buy more stuff.  Simple as that

It doesn't of course, because the amount by which wages increase, the dividends decrease.  The same amount of money is set in circulation, it only targets different people (because different production factors).  As such, of course, demand will be different in quality.

Quote
Shareholders cant do all the consumption for all of society.  You need a wide consumer base.  One guy buying a $10mm yatch fromnone business is not same as 1mm people buying various $10 items from many business

It is a different demand, and there will be different products.

Consider a totally automatic economy, completely robotized, that produces luxury sports cars, palaces, kaviar and champagne.  With robotized high-level medecine, and every other thing a rich person may need or desire.  And of course robots.  You could think of an economy that is totally run automatically, and where all the profits go to their shareholders, which are also the consumers of these luxury products.  The economic circle is closed, and not a single wage is paid, and not a single amount of labour is sold.  In this case, the share holders are the sole consumers, and generate the total agregate demand for the goods they produce.

This is an extreme case, but it illustrates that "wages" do not play a specific role in the circulation of money.  It only plays an important role when labour is important, but it has no fundamental role.

When labour is important (when it is needed in large quantities in industry), then of course industry needs to answer the demand of the potential labourers to a sufficient extend to buy their labour.  And that's what wages are, and that's why the industry is mass-consumption oriented.

But that doesn't have to be so.  Industry can be luxury oriented if labour is not needed in large quantities, or, as in my gedanken experiment, at all.

hero member
Activity: 784
Merit: 500
Sorry I have trouble following your argument.  Originally you argue that by lowering wages, the workers benefit because as a result lower prices will follow. 

It seems that in this thread, people have difficulty following a somewhat involved argument.  The point I argued AGAINST, was:

- "industrials should pay high wages to their personnel, because otherwise they don't have customers that can buy their products".

I argued against it by providing a similarly erroneous statement which applied this time not to entrepreneurs that make goods, but to workers that produce labor (call it reductio ad absurdum):

"workers should pay more labour to their employers so that these can sell cheaper products, and so that employers can buy more labour"

and I argued ALSO against it with my "weak" form of Say's law.

My point is that there is no need that it are LABORERS that buy products.  It can just as well be share holders.  The more you pay to laborers, the less you pay to your share holders.  So the more your laborers can buy your products, the less your shareholders can buy your products.

I gave an ultimate example of a hypothetical totally automatic production, where there is NO labor any more.  Then all the income goes to share holders.  They can just as well buy the products, while according to the theorem I am arguing against, if there are no wages, there would not be any consumption.  That's simply not true, because what is not paid as wages, can be paid as dividends.

That's the contents of my "weak" version of Say's law.


I made that argument that increased wages would in turn increase aggregate demand.  Its a macro argument not micro.  When people have nore money they buy more stuff.  Simple as that

Your example is pointless because its science fiction. 

Shareholders cant do all the consumption for all of society.  You need a wide consumer base.  One guy buying a $10mm yatch fromnone business is not same as 1mm people buying various $10 items from many business

Shareholders can enjoy capital gains without any increase in dividends.  Its not zero sum between shareholder vs worker
hero member
Activity: 770
Merit: 629
Sorry I have trouble following your argument.  Originally you argue that by lowering wages, the workers benefit because as a result lower prices will follow. 

It seems that in this thread, people have difficulty following a somewhat involved argument.  The point I argued AGAINST, was:

- "industrials should pay high wages to their personnel, because otherwise they don't have customers that can buy their products".

I argued against it by providing a similarly erroneous statement which applied this time not to entrepreneurs that make goods, but to workers that produce labor (call it reductio ad absurdum):

"workers should pay more labour to their employers so that these can sell cheaper products, and so that employers can buy more labour"

and I argued ALSO against it with my "weak" form of Say's law.

My point is that there is no need that it are LABORERS that buy products.  It can just as well be share holders.  The more you pay to laborers, the less you pay to your share holders.  So the more your laborers can buy your products, the less your shareholders can buy your products.

I gave an ultimate example of a hypothetical totally automatic production, where there is NO labor any more.  Then all the income goes to share holders.  They can just as well buy the products, while according to the theorem I am arguing against, if there are no wages, there would not be any consumption.  That's simply not true, because what is not paid as wages, can be paid as dividends.

That's the contents of my "weak" version of Say's law.
hero member
Activity: 784
Merit: 500
Uh no.  If Say's Law is correct then we shouldn't see things like The Great Depression or deflationary spirals.

That's an extension of the "bookkeeping" version of Say's law which is, as I outlined above, obviously correct.

You are referring to the version of Say's law that says that all production WILL be bought, and that economy will always work at maximum output.  THAT version is of course wrong, because it goes one step further.

The "bookkeeping" version of Say's law tells us that all production CAN be bought.  However, a stronger version (in fact, the original version) of Say's law states that it WILL be bought.  Now, *that* is not necessarily true.  You might very well decide, even though you have the money, NOT to buy the production that remains to be bought, simply because you're not INTERESTED in buying it.  In other words, one can produce goods which are not in demand.  The earnings to buy them are available, but nobody wants to buy them.

I use Say's law in its more restricted version, which simply states that it is impossible to have, *by lack of earnings*, overproduction that CANNOT be bought.  I'm not using Say's original version of the law, that deduces (erroneously) from this, that it WILL be bought.

So, yes, I agree with Keynes' rejection of the strong version of it, exactly because of lack of demand.  But that was not what was discussed here.  I mentioned (the restricted version of) Say's law to contradict the statement that if wages are not high enough, there is simply not enough EARNINGS to be ABLE to buy the production. That is obviously wrong.



Sorry I have trouble following your argument.  Originally you argue that by lowering wages, the workers benefit because as a result lower prices will follow.  Where is evidence of that?  I don't know what Says Law has to do w your argument.

Lower prices can result from outsourcing labor to cheaper labor markets.  However, only things that are possible be outsourced get benefit from cheaper foreign labor markets.  Things like energy, housing & services (including education & healthcare) don't have that benefit.  So even though you can buy cheaper TVs, your housing and utilities cost don't necessarily get cheaper.  That means lower wages in likelihood hurt the workers more than benefit them.

In any case, outsourcing will happen no matter what so we have displacement of labor.  If the manufacturing sector gets displaced into other sectors their wages still should be maintained and if wages rise the entire economy should benefit because of increased consumption (aggregate demand).

IDK if you work for a living but most people today complain about making ends meet compared to 20-30 years ago despite having more abundance of cheaper consumer goods manufacutred abroad
hero member
Activity: 770
Merit: 629
Uh no.  If Say's Law is correct then we shouldn't see things like The Great Depression or deflationary spirals.

That's an extension of the "bookkeeping" version of Say's law which is, as I outlined above, obviously correct.

You are referring to the version of Say's law that says that all production WILL be bought, and that economy will always work at maximum output.  THAT version is of course wrong, because it goes one step further.

The "bookkeeping" version of Say's law tells us that all production CAN be bought.  However, a stronger version (in fact, the original version) of Say's law states that it WILL be bought.  Now, *that* is not necessarily true.  You might very well decide, even though you have the money, NOT to buy the production that remains to be bought, simply because you're not INTERESTED in buying it.  In other words, one can produce goods which are not in demand.  The earnings to buy them are available, but nobody wants to buy them.

I use Say's law in its more restricted version, which simply states that it is impossible to have, *by lack of earnings*, overproduction that CANNOT be bought.  I'm not using Say's original version of the law, that deduces (erroneously) from this, that it WILL be bought.

So, yes, I agree with Keynes' rejection of the strong version of it, exactly because of lack of demand.  But that was not what was discussed here.  I mentioned (the restricted version of) Say's law to contradict the statement that if wages are not high enough, there is simply not enough EARNINGS to be ABLE to buy the production. That is obviously wrong.

hero member
Activity: 784
Merit: 500
Who cares about Say's Law?  Its not correct and outdated

 Grin

It is obviously correct, because it is simple accountancy.  The entire sales of any enterprise goes exactly to all of the production factors: wages (paying labor), dividends (paying capital and entrepreneurship), and the buying of other materials and services (ground), which are, themselves then, again inputs to other enterprises.

In the end, every penny that is earned in selling the goods, comes in the hands of someone, directly or indirectly involved in its production.  All those pennies together are, obviously, exactly equal to the sum of the prices of the sold goods.  So all those receivers of those pennies can buy exactly the sold goods.

Never ever can goods be sold that cannot be bought by the income generated by that sale.  Of course, it is not because those goods can be bought, that they WILL be bought, because the receivers of those sales incomes might want OTHER things.  But every penny that is an income from a sales, will end up in SOMEONE's pockets, and can hence in principle be spend to buy that product.  That's the essence of the contents of Say's law.  It is simple, mathematical, bookkeeping.

The only way in which Say's law could be wrong, is if somebody were to burry some money received from the sales, to never dig it up again.  Then, the sum of all the prices of the sold goods, minus the amount of money burried, would of course not be sufficient to buy all those goods.  But that is because there would be a "leak" in the money fluxes.



Uh no.  If Say's Law is correct then we shouldn't see things like The Great Depression or deflationary spirals.

Virtually all of mainstream economics accept Keynes rejection of Say's Law
sr. member
Activity: 302
Merit: 250
Never before 11 P.M.
Re:  Ethics.

Clearly paying a starving person a bowl of rice to work 16 hrs a day is unethical.  If you want break it down to economics.  If you exploit labor like this where will you get consumers?  When people have decent wages they can become consumers so in the long run the producers will enjoy more wealth. 

It's more ethical than not paying a starving person in food after they've worked for 16 hours.   Grin
hero member
Activity: 770
Merit: 629
the benefit is that you have increased output.

I can now use the same strategy towards a worker.  I can say that in order for my products to become cheaper so that he can buy more of them, I propose that he works 20% more time for a slightly lower wage.  The logic is the same.  If the guy tells me: "hey, you propose me to work more and earn less ?" I will answer him: "but my dear, your benefit is that you have increased your output" Smiley


Its a macro concept not micro
As long as output scales with extra work time you are correct, but generally workers operate at top capacity, and lack the ability to grow to meet higher demands.
Companies on the other can scale better, and with growth, comes efficiency, this is why output matters.

The law of diminishing returns...
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