Might be a stupid theory but hear me out on this, we have the gamblers that bet on 1 million, half of them lose, half of them win, the casinos get their 5% share, from this share they pay wages and rent and other costs, cutting the part where the casino gets the money it's that basically gamblers pay the wages of the whole staff manning those, and they also shuffle money between them.
Assuming rich people have more to lose and their share of the losses is bigger, taking into account they support with this money a ton of jobs, 70 000 in Europe alone, is this a form of wealth redistribution?
This is a true interpretation. Gambling still exist because the government earns a lot from it. They tax heavy both on gamblers profit as well as house profit and for the government its a way to redistribute wealth. The most people that gamble are rich or the ones who have money to spare. The few poor people that lose everything on gambling are exceptions. Normally poor and the lower middle class never gamble. The government taxes gambling profit a lot and redistributes it to the population (on ideal condition).
The other beneficiary is the gambling operator which can't be claimed to be redistribution as they are always winning.