So then "god" promoting the murder of babies, children, the raping of young women, the murder of the elderly, the murder of adulteres, the murder of his own priests, means that, "it is right and good and not evil."?
Murdering those who sin, is seen everywhere, and as I said is not done anymore. But it was done because those who were killed were evil (the Lord knew), and he didn't want His people to sin.
It doesn't say women were raped in the bible. Here are a couple of references discussing what some say was rape:
http://www.rationalchristianity.net/numbers31.htmlhttp://www.gotquestions.org/Bible-rape.html"Weren't the virgin women raped?
There are two parts to this objection: did God instruct or permit the soldiers to rape the women, and did the soldiers actually rape them?
It's clear that God didn't intend for the soldiers to rape the women, but rather to take them captive. The law God had given to the Israelites condemned rape, in some cases punishing it with death (Dt 22:25-27). Also, immediately following the command to spare the virgin women, the soldiers were instructed to purify themselves and their captives (31:19), and rape (or consensual intercourse) would have violated this command (Lev 15:16-18). In the rest of the chapter, the women are usually referred to as people (using the masculine adam), not women or virgins, underscoring the notion that they were seen as captives rather than sexual objects." (
link)
Unfortunately, your interpretation of the bible is wrong, as there are passages that explicitly show otherwise. There are numerous cases of rape being promoted in the bible. Numerous cases of innocent babies, children, and the elderly being killed because of god's orders. Your god is a evil god, there is no "ifs" or "buts" about it. I advise you go read through the OT portion of the bible carefully. EX:
If a man is caught in the act of raping a young woman who is not engaged, he must pay fifty pieces of silver to her father. Then he must marry the young woman because he violated her, and he will never be allowed to divorce her - (Deuteronomy 20:10-14)
Reading the above says, that if someone rapes someone, he is supposed to pay her father money (for the sin he's committed) and then marry her and take care of her because he violated her. Which means rape is a sin and the man is supposed to repay for his sin.
"Together, these passages clearly state that if a man has sex with a virgin who is not betrothed (regardless of whether or not it was rape or consensual) he is obliged to marry her. He should have sought her father's permission first, negotiated a bride-price, and taken her as his wife. Because he did not, he is punished for this—he now must pay up (he can't opt out any more) and marry her (which could be a major punishment in itself if this was a foolish, spur-of-the-moment act and she really wasn't the right woman for him!).
Also note that "he may not divorce her all his days" – this initially doesn't seem significant but is actually a major punishment. Deuteronomy 24:1-4 (restated more clearly in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9) allowed for divorce, but only in the case of sexual immorality (the word "uncleanness" refers to this and was translated as such in the LXX). This man now may not divorce his wife even for this reason, but is obliged to continue to support her all his life whatever she does.
But her father is ultimately in authority over her, as her head, until he hands this authority over to her husband. If the man is unsuitable, the father can refuse to give his daughter to him. How many fathers would give their daughter to a rapist? Not many. So, in general, a rapist would actually have to pay a 50 silver shekel fine to her father, and not get a wife at all.
The answer to the question is in Exodus 22:17 - the woman does NOT have to marry a rapist, she must only do what her father says." (
Does Deuteronomy 22:28-29 command a rape victim to marry her rapist?)
And as I said before, children and babies are surely exempt from "sin" and cannot be compared to Adults in the matter of sinning. Therefore, your god killing innocent babies and children just proves my point, your not worshiping "god the father", you're worshiping "satan".
Just because you think children and babies are innocent from sin, doesn't mean it's true. According to the bible, there are generational curses, which means children have to pay for the sin of their mother/father. But this explains it pretty well, he was trying to save those who believed in Him, and keeping those who didn't, who would sin with no regret from passing it on and "infecting" others with that sin, thereby showing
love:
"In regard to the Canaanites, God commanded, “However, in the cities of the nations the LORD your God is giving you as an inheritance, do not leave alive anything that breathes. Completely destroy them — the Hittites, Amorites, Canaanites, Perizzites, Hivites and Jebusites — as the LORD your God has commanded you. Otherwise, they will teach you to follow all the detestable things they do in worshiping their gods, and you will sin against the LORD your God” (Deuteronomy 20:16-18). The Israelites failed in this mission as well, and exactly what God said would happen occurred (Judges 2:1-3; 1 Kings 11:5; 14:24; 2 Kings 16:3-4). God did not order the extermination of these people to be cruel, but rather to prevent even greater evil from occurring in the future.
Probably the most difficult part of these commands from God is that God ordered the death of children and infants as well. Why would God order the death of innocent children? (1) Children are not innocent (Psalm 51:5; 58:3). (2) These children would have likely grown up as adherents to the evil religions and practices of their parents. (3) By ending their lives as children, God enabled them to have entrance into Heaven. We strongly believe that all children who die are accepted into Heaven by the grace and mercy of God (2 Samuel 12:22-23; Mark 10:14-15; Matthew 18:2-4)." (
Why did God command the extermination / genocide of the Canaanites, women and children included?)