When was Palestine a country?
No one wants else wants to try to answer this? Is it because you all agree Palestine never was a country?
Yes it is obvious than Palestine was a country, read Wikipedia page (if you want).
When was Palestine a country?
No one wants else wants to try to answer this? Is it because you all agree Palestine never was a country?
Palestine was always a country. Ever heard about Mandatory Palestine?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mandatory_PalestineAfter the Ottomans were driven out of the Levant, Palestine was administrated as a British mandate. Also, notice that the name is "Palestine" and not Israel.
Now I really should want to know what J. J. Phillips will say regard this "incredible" news for him, do you know that Israel is still invading the palestinazi lands or not? I don't like the Israeli politic about this fact.
At least someone finally made an assertion. Did any of you read even the first sentence of the linked wikipedia page?
Mandatory Palestine[1] (Arabic: فلسطين Filasṭīn; Hebrew: פָּלֶשְׂתִּינָה (א"י) Pālēśtīnā (EY), where "EY" indicates "Eretz Yisrael" (Land of Israel)) was a geopolitical entity under British administration, carved out of Ottoman Southern Syria after World War I.
Why does it say "geopolitical entity" instead of "country" or "nation" or "state"? Strange, yes? If you read more you'll find it's clear why. Because it was not a country (in the sense of a "nation" or "state") during the post WW1 period. It was a territory under British rule. It's like saying the U.S. was a country before 1776. Or, even better, like saying Israel was a country when it was under Assyrian or Roman rule. Or maybe you believe those things.
Anyway, let's make the progress clear. Here's the assertion:
(PC19201948) Palestine was a country during the period from 1920 to 1948.
nazisn0w and bryant gumble declare this to be "true". I declare it to be "false". So at least we finally know one assertion we're disagreeing about.
I suppose I could think of examples where X was a country in Year 1, X was occupied by an external force during Year 2, and then X threw out the occupiers in Year 3. In that case, it's unclear whether X was a country during Year 2.
Here we have a case, however, where X was under the rule of an external force, then was under the rule of a different external force. In this case it's hard for me to see how X was a country at all. I assume you don't think a necessary criteria for something to be a country is that it was ever under independent self-rule.
This, of course, may be simply a difference in language. Maybe it was a sn0w-country but not a JJ-country. Let's try to clarify this by considering the following assertion.
(ISSYR) Israel was a country during the period from 720BCE to 605BCE.
The dates are chosen because 720BCE is when a certain Kingdom of Israel in that region was destroyed by the Assyrian empire, which itself fell in 605BCE. I assume your answer is probably no, because goddamn Jews.
(PCSR) Palestine has never been under independent self rule.
Can we at least agree on that?