What is the Gambler's Fallacy?Wikipedia has an awesome ELI 5:
"Gambler’s fallacy arises out of a belief in the law of small numbers, or the
erroneous belief that small samples must be representative of the larger population. According to the fallacy,
“streaks” must eventually even out in order to be representative." -
Wikipedia Page
A simple example:I see people fall victim to this train of thought so often, and a lot of the times it's the reason they fail at gambling. Here is a common example that I see around here a lot:
- Most people can agree that if you flip a coin, it's 50/50 for heads or tails respectively.
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Now, take this scenario: "You lose 20 coin flips in a row, what are your odds to win the next one?"
If you think that your odds are any different than 50/50 for the 21st coin flip, then you have fallen victim to this fallacy.
Individually it's very easy to understand the odds for one event, but once you introduce more data it gets a lot harder to tell.
I disagree with that if you bet 20times on the same side and you lose, the odds are not the same for the next flip (if the flips are really random).
It doesn't mean you'll have 100% chances to win but you'll have more than 50% chances to win...
Assuming that the games are probably fair, the streaks but law of probability eventually have to even out. You are just as likely to lose 10 in a row than to win 10 in a row assuming that odds are 50-50. I dont understand how that is a fallacy can anyone help me understand why it is wrong to think?
It's the idea that the previous results change the odds on the next. In your mind if 9 are tails in a row you think it just can't be tails in a row that would be insane and think of it as a 1/10 result and 10% chance but it's really 50/50.
How do you explain that then?
On 50 000 runs of 32 flips, 0 runs gave less than 6 heads. But more than 7000 gave exactly 16 heads and 16 tails...
So you have more chances to get 9 tails and 1heads or 5tails and 5heads?