Lets reverse this statement - "Should you be lucky because someone else was 'punished' (lost)?" Is this lucky person then considered to be 'stealing' from the casino because someone else before him lost?
When you walk into a Casino you have no idea whether the 'house' is in front or behind. You put your money in the slot and you hope the players before you lost, and lost big, because you know the odds of that slot paying out are 'likely' to be higher. You also hope that slot hasn't just paid out big for the same reason. You might say well maybe the slot is on a 'payout' streak? Maybe it is, maybe it isnt, but how can you know for sure either way? Its all about probability at the end of the day and no-one can ever know if they are about to win or lose before they gamble - ever. Thats why its called a 'gamble'. No matter what the game or where you play. This casino has a 98% payout and thats as good as you will get anywhere.
The thing you have to understand is that slot's random number generators have no idea what the last numbers they made are. they are just as likely to pay 3 jackpots in a row as they are to pay 3 jackpots 6 months apart from each other. The thing with slots is that the odds aren't clear when you play them usually, but if your casino does indeed pay 98%, than that means, at all times, it should be the same odds. That means if a slot jackpot is 1000 credits, but the bank only has 950 so it decides to say that you can win the jackpot, even though you can't, and that the odds are 98%, even though removing the jackpot lowers the odds, then you are stealing from players, because you are advertising 98% returns when it is really lower. your games should all be independent and if another player wins 110% that he wagered, that doesn't mean the casino has 110% returns and should short pay the next player to make it average to 98%, it means he got lucky and the odds should remain 98%. If your upset that you lost money running a casino, just understand you are rolling dice too.
For this scenario to occur, the bank would need to not only have not enough money available to pay the jackpot (which Redcoin said is unlikely to occur in his previous post), but the jackpot would also need to be 'overdue' ie: it has passed its pre-programmed random 1:10,000 payout ratio. RED would need to confirm this but I suspect what would still occur in this instance is once the funds are there, the jackpot is paid, and the next jackpot is paid earlier as well, since the 10,000 count started when the previous 10,000 finished (even though the jackpot wasnt paid until spin 13,000 for example). What you need to realise is we're not talking about balls spinning in a bucket here that fall out randomly...these are computer generated programs that monitor bank balances, jackpots, & payouts. Chance still plays a big part in whether an individual wins or loses, but its determined by a computer, not by the 'random' roll of a dice (though I'm sure lots of random numbers are thrown around as part of the programming). A good thing about a computer managing the 'randomness' however is you are guaranteed a 98% payout. You wont get that assurance from balls dropping out of a bucket. You could get a lot more sure - but you could get a lot less than 98% too.