In most countries when debt is so high then the gambler's family is bound to pay the debt. In most cases they have to sell their properties in order to pay the debt, but if debt isn't too much then the lender allows them to pay him on monthly basis. But, that lender can do so many wrong things with that family and whatever he tells them they'll have to obey his orders. I even heard that some of such lenders often sexually exploits wives and young daughters of those who take loan from them. It's a bitter truth but it happens in many communities. Lenders want their money back badly and for that they can go to any extent.
As far as I know, only the debtor is responsible for his debt. If there is a guarantor then the guarantor will take responsibility depending on the signed agreement. As what I have read, children have nothing to do with their parents debt, even the wife has no obligation to pay for his husband's debt except if the person in debt has properties under his name then this properties will be liquidated. Just like what is stated in this article:
https://trustandwill.com/learn/can-you-inherit-your-parents-debtHowever, if the loan is without collateral, the bank can charge the family and if it turns out they have assets, the assets are sold to pay off the bank.
In my country, if the asset is not under that person in the debt's name, the bank doesn't have the right to liquidate that asset even if it is known as a family asset. In case there is a conjugal property, It can't be used to pay for the husband or wife debt unless the debt benefited the family. So to say by default even the conjugal property can't be used to pay the personal debt of the husband or the wife if the debt does not benefit the family.
The payment of personal debts contracted by the husband or the wife before or during the marriage shall not be charged to the conjugal properties partnership except insofar as they redounded to the benefit of the family. Neither shall the fines and indemnities imposed upon them be charged to the partnership
So the family property can't be used to pay a personal debt especially when the case is about gambling debt since it does not give benefit the family . Here is an article[1] that further explains about conjugal property on personal debt...
But like most provisions of law, there are exceptions. If the husband incurred indebtedness but did not accrue an actual benefit to the family, his personal payment on the said debts shall not be charged to the conjugal properties.
So the answer to the title is no at least in my country, since gambling debt is more on a personal gain and the debt incurred on that activity does not give benefit to the family.
[1]
https://www.divinalaw.com/dose-of-law/extent-of-conjugal-liability-for-debts/