1) I explained to you why you can't be right regarding your assumption of an absolute separation between objective and subjective reality. There's an entire logical principle dating back to the ancient Greeks (and likely before them) that states exactly this...it's the principle that states differences arise from sameness and similarities. Your methodology to forming conclusions about reality incorporates a false assumption about reality itself. Reality includes both subjectivity and objectivity, and so a comprehensive model of reality must explain how each defines the other.
I think my model is much simpler. Basically, we assume that reality is objective, and we, as an objective species existing in that reality, subjectively percieve that reality through our senses. If you start with the assumption that reality is objective, i.e. it exists and is as it is whether we percieve it or not, and place the fault of subjectivity only on our own limited subjective senses and reasoning ability, all the logic falls into place just fine.
Everything shares a fundamental identity with everything else. In mathematics, this fundamental identity is a distributive property represented by the number '1'. Consider a statement, "ab = xy". This is really 1(a)1(b) = 1(x)1(y). The property of identity is a mathematical law that distributes to everything. Everything is united by this principle of identity...of cohesion.
That doesn't actually say anything. All you did was present a set of mathematical symbols, and claim that these symbols represent what you say they do. I don't even know if you mean a * b or something else, or if you mean 1 * a * 1 * b or 1-of-a * 1-of-b. Like, is 1 a number that is multiplied by other variables, or is 1 a function, like
f in
f(x)? If you're going to throw terms like these around, please take the time to explain them, since otherwise they don't have any meeting to anyone but yourself.
2a) You can reason about what's behind the horizon in a probabilistic way, but that's another way of saying "I don't know." Instead, I can say "I know that it's impossible to know what's beyond the horizon" and be correct. You never know where Dank is having his million man music festival. It's always just over the horizon, isn't it?
Actually, it's not "I don't know," but rather "It is not x" and possibly "It is Y with a probability of %." For instance, I know Dank, if he ever does, will NOT have his festival in the Marianas Trench, in the vacuum of space, on the moon or the sun, and likely not on top of Mt Everest, the top of the mpountain range in Chile, in the middle of the Sahara, inside of a car or a small shed, or in my house. Or at any number of other things that can not accomodate the requirements of having a concert (such as viable temperatures and sound carying atmosphere). I think that is considerably more precise than simply "I don't know," especially since it lets us to narrow the choices to an overall where we DO know. Like, if I didn't know whether Dank would have his concert in Venue A or in Venue B accross the street from Venue A, I can say with certainty that Dank will have his concert in a specific city that contains both venues. Likewise, I know that Dank will have his concert on Earth, if he actually does have a concert. And hey, that's how science works
2b) Non-sequitur. The reason is because "beyond the horizon" (not-visible) and "horizon" (visible) are localized distributions in spacetime. Your conclusion would only be valid if you're talking about polytheistic gods. A monotheistic god is omnipresent.
If he is supposedly omnipresent, but yet can not be percieved, then...