Its NAP done properly. People do get together in societies and societies do act to protect themselves from harm. If the society believes losing the benefits of IP law is harmful, it will protect and enforce IP laws...
The moral question is whether society is entitled to have IP laws. Answer is yes since society has a right to protect itself from harm and its a legitimate decision that losing the benefits of IP law will be harmful in some cases.
I agree that the practical question of what to protect is not a moral question - it's something that ideally should be decided by a group of elected representatives.
You really like this society concept. Could we not say that at a minimum, society is comprised of at least 2 people? It's small I know, but still true. Can we not also say that it only requires one person to create law? Now given the above, it would seem obvious that the law(s) created shouldn't favor the one person over the other, because by doing so, the one individual could gain an economic advantage over the other.
This advantage could eventually lead to the other person eventually losing his property to the other individual due to his cunning manipulation of the law. This typically results in different classes of individuals. Now I ask you, should the one individual be esteemed higher than the other, under the law? No doubt the individuals are unique and have different skill sets, but should there be privileges bestowed via force of law?
Is there a logical reason why there should be any inequitable application of law? Should one man's property be given any greater privilege than the other man? Remember, the property is just combinations of atoms or molecules in an infinite number of configurations. Why should any specific interpretation of that property obtain special privilege and status? Should not the division of property be one of a physical nature? To wit, shouldn't the property you have, be of any configuration you choose?
Should we also
not want to violate or invade any individuals physical property or person? If property can be defined beyond the physical and chemical characteristics, then by mere interpretation, one individual can obtain the property of another by description alone. If it is to be assumed that the composition of matter is what determines property, then any combination or permutation could gain favored status and confiscatory powers; and why should some compositions gain privilege and not others?
Or why, if intellectual property really was just like physical property, that it should have an expiration date? That would be like the government deciding from one day to the next that your ownership of your house, isn't for life (or transferable to your heirs and assigns), but could expire next week. I mean seriously, how would you feel if your "representative" sent an agent to confiscate your property because they decided the expiration date was in a few days? What makes them so important to decide this matter? From whence comes their privilege? I surely wouldn't give it to them. Oh yeah, the majority thought it was a good idea. Why is the majority deciding what to do with my property again? Why should the majority be voting on what to do with my property in the first place?
Don't you find it just a bit disconcerting, that an individual should have to fear losing his property because millions of "sanctioned" compositions might in some way resemble what others have created? Should I as an individual, have to research these millions of compositions before I proceed to modify what is in my possession? Does it not also seem a bit odd that I could be completely unaware that I'm breaking a law at any moment in time whilst in the privacy of my abode? How does one break a law without being able to measure it, or being aware of it?
Why should describing and registering a composition automatically put me in the precarious situation of law-breaker? Is law really this complicated?