Hmm... We were not comparing gun deaths but violent crime rates. And they were much higher in the USA than in European countries where strict gun control is applied.
Like how Violent Crime
increased in the UK as a direct result of banning guns?
How do you explain this one?
Yes rather easily.
First: the rise seems to not be the direct consequence from gun ban. If you look red and blue curves, they're not at all symmetrical. Seems like they're was an upper trend: the violent crimes rate was already levelling up and the rise seems to be independent from gun licenses.
Second: but if they're independent that means gun control is not an efficient way of lowering violent crime rates. Of course what I'm going to say is hypothetical, that's a good explanation I think but there can be no proof of my reasoning.
If you look at the evolution of the rates, you can see there is first no impact of gun control on violent crime rates, but then:
http://www.nationmaster.com/country-info/profiles/United-Kingdom/Crime/Violent-crimeYou see that the violent crime rates significantly decreases year after year.
My explanation (which is, again, hypothetical) would be that the rates diminish with the number of firearms actually in circulation. It's not because the government creates gun control that the population will immediately gives the guns to the police. It takes time for guns to finish in the hand of the police or to be forgotten somewhere or even thrown out. But as nobody sells guns, in the end the number of guns owned by the population can only decreases. Which is why the violent crime rates also decrease, but with some inertia.
Again, it's all hypothetical but I find this explanation rather logical and realist.